The Answer: the Bible before 1611.

The Answer:  In the available Antiochian manuscripts.

The Explanation:

Critics of the perfect Bible like to throw out this question as though it will “stun” Bible believers. It doesn’t.

The overwhelming majority of Bible manuscripts existent throughout history have been the text found in Antioch. They have always been available in some form, either in copies of the original Greek, or the old Latin of 150 AD, (NOT to be confused with Jerome’s corrupt “Vulgate”) or the Syrian Peshetto of 157 AD.

That it would be difficult indeed to gather all of these sources together and place them in the hands of the common man gives credence to God’s reasoning for the collation and translation of the King James Bible.

©All material is copyright of Dr. Sam Gipp. Used with permission.


Posted on August 16, 2011, in The Answer and tagged , , , , , , . Bookmark the permalink. 2 Comments.

  1. danielandtonya

    What do you or Dr. Gipp have to say about those places in the KJV that are textually based on Alexandrian manuscripts? If Antioch is the only place where trustworthy manuscripts come from (by the way, its not), then the KJV is not completely trustworthy as it does not completely follow only Antiochene manuscripts. I don’t think that. I think the KJV is trustworthy because it is based on trustworthy manuscripts, like the Codex Alexandrinus which is not from Antioch.

    One more thing. Dr. Gipp says, “The overwhelming majority of Bible manuscripts existent throughout history have been the text found in Antioch.” How can this be accepted with no support? How can a doctor of theology make absurd statements like this and not offer a shred of proof? Simple. He has no proof for his statements.

  2. Interesting that I’m wtiring a series of KJV entries which coincides with your recent reflection of the KJV’s history and KJV-only argument, though mine approaches from a slightly different angle. 😀

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